I am using GA on website as everyone out there does same. In order to be GDPR complaint i had used "https://cookie-script.com" script to for user consent for one of my website and i notice for last two month my web stats have gone down almost by 80% as i am asking for explicit user consent. I implemented user consent since 1 july 2018.
My understanding was that i still need explicit user consent for using GA even of i have IP Anonymized
& Advertising Features
turned off in GA.
recently i came across few articles which say if we IP Anonymized
& turn off Advertising Features
then we don't need user consent is this the fact or still need user consent for using GA tracking.
My GA Script when asking user for explicit consent
<script async src="https://www.googletagmanager.com/gtag/js?id=UA-xxxxxxx-x"></script>
<script type="text/plain" data-cookiescript="accepted">
window.dataLayer = window.dataLayer || [];
function gtag() { dataLayer.push(arguments); }
gtag('js', new Date());
gtag('config', 'xxxxxxx-x', { 'anonymize_ip': true });
</script>
NORMAL GA CODE
<script async src="https://www.googletagmanager.com/gtag/js?id=UA-xxxxxxx-x"></script>
<script type="text/plain" >
window.dataLayer = window.dataLayer || [];
function gtag() { dataLayer.push(arguments); }
gtag('js', new Date());
gtag('config', 'xxxxxxx-x', { 'anonymize_ip': true });
</script>
This script will allow tracking only when user agrees to cookies.
Based on my question can i use google analytics based on above setting without user consent?