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With GA you can choose to anonymise users IP addresses.

You can also choose to exclude IP addresses from affecting your analytics.

The question is about how these both work together...

My theory is that it would be crazy that Google has not already thought about this and that the rules will filter FIRST as it has your IP for processing - then once it detects the exclude rule it will stop.

Only once it's passed the rules it will then anonymise the IP.

Thus IP filters are absolutely fine as they are, even after turning on IP Anonymisation.

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The argument is based on what I think are terrible bits of advise from places such as https://www.en.advertisercommunity.com/t5/Google-Analytics-Filters/Excluding-internal-IP-traffic-amp-anonymize-IP/td-p/885589 which are telling users to use regex... which in no way shape or form will help any different from just setting the IP to having a .0 at the end.

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Does anybody else have any more plausible advise or evidence etc to show that IP Anon doesn't affect filters?

Thanks

1

It does, in fact, appear to affect filters. From my own experience (unfortunately I have no external data or sources to back it up) you need to filter IP addresses without the last octet.

So, in order to filter the IPv4 address 123.123.123.123 you should 'Exclude from IP addresses that begin with' 123.123.123

Filtering an IPv6 address like 2001:0db8:0000:0042:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 is done via 'Exclude from IP addresses that begin with' 2001:0db8:0000::

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  • Would this not then mean you're excluding the whole last octet from your analytics? even from legit visitors? – Owen Jul 26 '18 at 11:42
  • By using anonymizeIp() you're stripping the last octet from the IP address. And yes, the described filters can potentially blocking legit visitors as well. – Theo van der Zee Jul 26 '18 at 12:01

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