For a B2B company, does GDPR make a distinction in the level of consent required for sending marketing emails to individual and business email addresses? What about role-based emails at companies?
At a recent training course, it was advised that business email addresses (eg
@companyname.com) were ok to send marketing emails to without explicit consent as long as the service/offering was related to their area of business (and that emails pertaining to individuals eg
@gmail.com would still require explicit consent) - is this the case?
Note: I can find nothing online which supports this (and certainly at least one article which states that there is no difference between individuals and named people at companies). Plus, it just doesn't feel like good practice.